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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 19.06.2025 00:26

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Gun owners, imagine if an attacker comes to your home and takes your gun to use against you before you had the chance to pick it up. Would you regret owning a gun?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

There's no rule.

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Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

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Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.